Re: Why does this work

[Chet Ramey]

> I'd like to access the script name ($0) in a shell function. I can do
> this with
>       [...elided...]
> 
> My questions are:
> 
> - Why gives the "set" statement as listed above access to the script
>   name?

$0 stays the same in a shell function.

> - Why does this work with bash but not with ksh?

Which part?

-- 
``The lyf so short, the craft so long to lerne.'' - Chaucer
( ``Discere est Dolere'' -- chet)

Chet Ramey, CWRU    chet@po.CWRU.Edu    http://cnswww.cns.cwru.edu/~chet/