[Top][All Lists]
[Date Prev][Date Next][Thread Prev][Thread Next][Date Index][Thread Index]
RE: is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define?
From: |
Dave Korn |
Subject: |
RE: is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define? |
Date: |
Sat, 22 Dec 2007 10:37:16 -0000 |
On 21 December 2007 21:55, Robert P. J. Day wrote:
> is there any problem with invoking $(call fred) if "fred" hasn't
> been defined? that is, is "call" defined to just quietly pass over
> that and keep going? thanks.
No problem at all, and yes, if you call an undefined variable, it expands to
nothing - which of course is then unchanged by applying the arguments since it
doesn't contain any $(1) etc. You'll get a warning message if you've used
"--warn-undefined-variables" on the command line.
cheers,
DaveK
--
Can't think of a witty .sigline today....