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RE: is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define?
From: |
Robert P. J. Day |
Subject: |
RE: is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define? |
Date: |
Sat, 22 Dec 2007 06:32:23 -0500 (EST) |
On Sat, 22 Dec 2007, Dave Korn wrote:
> On 21 December 2007 21:55, Robert P. J. Day wrote:
>
> > is there any problem with invoking $(call fred) if "fred" hasn't
> > been defined? that is, is "call" defined to just quietly pass over
> > that and keep going? thanks.
>
> No problem at all, and yes, if you call an undefined variable, it expands to
> nothing - which of course is then unchanged by applying the arguments since it
> doesn't contain any $(1) etc. You'll get a warning message if you've used
> "--warn-undefined-variables" on the command line.
>
> cheers,
> DaveK
i suspected as much, i was just curious if it was a standard make
technique to do that sort of thing. thanks.
rday
--
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Robert P. J. Day
Linux Consulting, Training and Annoying Kernel Pedantry
Waterloo, Ontario, CANADA
http://crashcourse.ca
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