Re: Hairpin.to-barline doesn't always work

[Pierre Perol-Schneider]

If that could help for understanding this behaviour, in the regression tests, hairpin-barline-break.ly says:

"If a hairpin ends on the first note of a new staff, we do not print that ending. But on the previous line, this hairpin should not be left open, and should end at the bar line."

This probably comes from a dedicated discussion about an hairpin / break issue during the years 2010/2011...

Cheers,

Pierre

2018-07-26 7:11 GMT+02:00 Pierre Perol-Schneider <address@hidden>:

No, I can't but I can give you a workaround:

\version "2.19.81"

\paper {
    ragged-bottom = ##t
    ragged-right = ##t
}

\relative c'' {
    c1
    \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f d1\<
    e1\!
}

\relative c'' {
    \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f
    c1 c c c c c c c c c
    d1-\tweak to-barline ##f -\tweak after-line-breaking ##t \<
    e1\!
}

\relative c'' {
    c1
    \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f
    \override Hairpin.after-line-breaking = ##t
    d1\<
    \break
    e1\!
}

HTH, Cheers,

Pierre

2018-07-26 3:59 GMT+02:00 Patrick Karl <address@hidden>:

On 7/20/18 11:32 PM, Pierre Perol-Schneider wrote:

Hi Patrick,

Try:

\version "2.19.81"

{ 
  \time 1/4
  \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f
  a8\> b
  c'4\!
}

{ 

  \time 1/4
  a8-\tweak to-barline ##f \> b
  c'4\!
}

Cheers,

Pierre

I appreciate the advice.  Can you explain why a break, whether automatic or forced, seems to completely negate the to-barline setting:

\version "2.19.81"

\paper {
    ragged-bottom = ##t
    ragged-right = ##t
}

\relative c'' {
    c1
    \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f d1\<
    e1\!
}

\relative c'' {
    c1 c c c c c c c c c
    \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f d1\<
    e1\!
}

\relative c'' {
    c1
    \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f d1\<
    \break
    e1\!
}

As you can see (I hope), the first example works as expected, but the next two examples fail in that the hairpin stops at the barline.  I have read the section of the Notation RM dealing with the to-barline property of Spanners (5.4.6), and haven't seen an explanation of this behavior.

2018-07-21 5:08 GMT+02:00 Patrick Karl <address@hidden>:

Section 5.4.6 of the Notation RM states:

The to-barline property

The second useful property of the spanner-interface is to-barline. By default this is true, causing hairpins and other spanners which are terminated on the first note of a measure to end instead on the immediately preceding bar line. If set to false, the spanner will extend beyond the bar line and end on the note itself

I have a couple of questions about this section.  The first is, why would the default setting for to-barface be true?  If I wanted my spanner to end on the immediately preceding bar line, I could easily set "\!" after the last note of the preceding bar.

The second question has to do with the following two examples:

\version "2.19.81"
{  \time 1/4
    a8\> b
    \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f
    c'4\! }
{  \time 1/4
    a8\> b
    \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##t
    c'4\! }

Both examples give identical output, i.e., the hairpin ends before the first barline, not extending to the first note of the second bar no matter what the setting of Hairpin.to-barline is.

How can I extend the hairpin to the end of the note in the 2nd bar?

Please answer both questions.  Why would the default be so counter-intuitive?

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