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Re: Should invisible imply intangible?

From: Stefan Monnier
Subject: Re: Should invisible imply intangible?
Date: Fri, 15 Mar 2002 19:59:08 -0500

> "Stefan Monnier" <monnier+gnu/address@hidden> writes:
> > I'm not completely sure about that.  After all, why would someone
> > put a `display' property on an `invisible' overlay if the `invisible'
> > property means that the `display' property will be ignored anyway ?
> Perhaps the properties come from different sources (e.g., one form a
> text property, one from an overlay)?

I was specifically referring to the case where both properties come
from the same overlay.  I don't know what should (or does) happen
when the two properties come from different sources.


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