Re: Can watermarking Unicode text using invisible differences sneak through Emacs, or can Emacs detect it?

[Eli Zaretskii]

> From: Richard Stallman <rms@gnu.org>
> Cc: psainty@orcon.net.nz, luangruo@yahoo.com, emacs-devel@gnu.org,
>       kevin.legouguec@gmail.com
> Date: Tue, 01 Feb 2022 00:06:21 -0500
> 
>   > Please try the patch below.
> 
> With that patch, and using latin1-display-ucs-per-lynx, it does display
> that character as text.  It uses the string `a)?'

Actually, it shows a(?.

> -- that doesn't seem to make sense to indicate a macron and a tilde,
> but at leaset the underlying mechanism seems to work.

If you rotate "(?" 90 degrees counter-clockwise, you'll get something
resembling the breve and the tilde above it.

If you can suggest a better "ASCII art" for this, we could use it.
What we have now comes from Lynx, but we aren't wedded to it.